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DarkDespair5

Avatar: 77864 Thu Jun 04 08:28:46 -0400 2009

Level 56 Hacker

“Logic Bomber”

Shii Posted:

I’m not sure what you’re asking.

Could you rephrase the question?

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Let’s take something that can’t be taken out of context:

What was the purpose of “Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.” (I Corinthians 14:34-35) ?

Or

“For the man is not of the woman; but the woman of the man. Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man.” (I Corinthians 11:8-9)

This clearly says women are inferior. Science says they aren’t. So on what grounds would the preceding biblical text be acceptable?

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